Grammar Hero's ASVAB Practice Test
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8 minutes
20 minutes
22 minutes
39 minutes
1. Brawl most nearly means:
A) Meeting
B) Colorful
C) Cautious
D) Scuffle
2. Dishearten most nearly means:
A) Question
B) Demoralize
C) Apathy
D) Flood
3. Alliance most nearly means:
А) Revolting
B) Infamous
C) Coalition
D) Ordinary
4. Germinate most nearly means:
A) Grow
B) Scuffle
C) Warlike
D) Beseech
5. Brood most nearly means:
А) Plead
B) Worry
C) Judge
D) Exact
6. Drone most nearly means:
А) Pepper
B) Buzz
C) Tangible
D) Calculable
7. Pervade most nearly means:
А) Betrayal
B) Mistreat
C) Haphazard
D) Saturate
8. Mar most nearly means:
А) Snatch
B) Scuff
C) Punish
D) Comfort
9. Transmit most nearly means:
А) Deliver
B) Litter
C) Regret
D) Block
10. Hazard most nearly means:
А) Aversion
B) Conceited
C) Spurious
D) Danger
11. Verify most nearly means:
А) Substantiate
B) Unfeeling
C) Question
D) Charge
12. Lair most nearly means:
А) Hideaway
B) Wield
C) Hesitation
D) Muffle
13. Quest most nearly means:
А) Manage
B) Lithe
C) Venture
D) Pamper
14. Snare most nearly means:
А) Permanent
B) Annoyance
C) Entrap
D) Latitude
15. Peccadillo most nearly means:
А) Dilapidate
B) Opposite
C) Engross
D) Misdeed
16. Farce most nearly means:
А) Oblige
B) Pursuit
C) Mockery
D) Distinct

Math Knowledge

Please read all of these instructions carefully.

  • In this section of the test, you will be presented with 16 questions that will assess your understanding of basic mathematical concepts. You are not permitted to use a calculator on this section of the test, although you may use as much scratch paper as necessary.

  • For this section of the test, you will have 20 minutes to answer the questions. In light of that, you should not spend too much time on a question. If you are not certain of the answer, answer it the best you can, and go on to the next question.

  • Once you start this section of the test, you will not be able to pause it. In addition, you must complete every section of this practice test (i.e., Word Knowledge, Arithmetic Reasoning, Paragraph Comprehension, and Mathematics Knowledge) to see your predicted AFQT score.

Click the start button to begin.

1. Evaluate the expression using the given values: 2x3 - x2 + y3, for x = 3 and y = -2.
A) 42
B) 21
C) 37
D) 53
2. What are the factors of 2x3 - 10x2 + 3x - 15?
A) (x - 5)(2x2 + 3)
B) (x + 5)(2x2 + 3)
C) (x - 5)(2x + 3)
D) (x2 - 5)(2x + 3)
3. What is the area of a parallelogram (A = bh) if it has a base of 3x - 7 and a height of 5x + 6?
А) 8x2 + 17x - 42
B) 15x2 - 17x - 42
C) (5x + 6)(3x - 7)(5x)(3x)
D) 8x(x + 5)(x + 3)
4. Subtract 5x2 - 8x + 6 from the sum of 3x2 - 4x + 2 and 7 - 5x2 - 6x.
A) 7x2 + 2x - 3
B) -7x2 - 2x + 3
C) 7x2 - 2x - 3
D) 2x2 - 2x + 3
5. If C is -10, then what is F? Use C = 5⁄9(F - 32).
А) 14
B) 15
C) 16
D) 17
6. Write an equation of a line that is parallel to y = x + 3 and passes through the point (-4, 1).
А) y = -x + 5
B) y = -x - 5
C) y = x + 5
D) y = -5x + 5
7. Which of the following is a prime number: 72, 63, 123, 193?
А) 72
B) 63
C) 123
D) 193
8. What is the product of the reciprocals of 3⁄4, 1⁄8, and 12?
А) 8/9
B) 1 1/8
C) 1 1/4
D) 2 1/8
9. If 5x = 625, then x = ?
А) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
10. What is the length of the diagonal of a rectangle that has a length of 6 and height of 5?
А) 8
B) √61
C) 10
D) √13
11. If you deposit $4,000 into an account that earns 10% in annual interest and is compounded annually, how much money will be in the account after one year?
Use A = P(1 +
r n
)nt. A is the amount in the account, P is principal (i.e., the amount you invest), r is your interest rate in decimal form, n is the number of times interest is compounded per year, and t is the time of your investment in years.

А) $4,400
B) $4,600
C) $4,300
D) $4,500
12. What is the height of a triangle that has a base of 15 feet and an area of 300 square feet?
А) 20 feet
B) 30 feet
C) 40 feet
D) 50 feet
13. If the radius of one circle is 6 inches and the radius of a smaller circle is 4 inches, how much more area does the larger circle cover than the smaller one? Use 3.14 for π
А) 6.28 inches2
B) 62.8 inches2
C) 32.8 inches2
D) 42.8 inches2
14. If 4! is the same as 4 x 3 x 2 x 1, simplify the following expression:
9! 3!6!
А) 12
B) 36
C) 48
D) 84
15. Find the distance between the points (-5, -5) and (-9, -2).
А) 7
B) √12
C) 5
D) √29
16. What is the area of the shaded section of the figure below?

А) 30 cm2
B) 27 cm2
C) 25 cm2
D) 23 cm2

Paragraph Comprehension

Please read all of these instructions carefully.

  • In this section of the test, you will be presented with passage that will be followed by several questions. In total, there are 11 multiple-choice questions. Please read each passage carefully before attempting to answer the questions. For each question, you will be asked to select the most appropriate answer.

  • For this section of the test, you will have 22 minutes to answer the questions. In light of that, you should not spend too much time on a question. If you are not certain of the answer, answer it the best you can, and go on to the next question.

  • Some questions are based on materials presented on the left side of a split screen. Make sure to read each page on the left side before trying to answer the questions on the right side of the screen.

Click the start button to begin.

(1) For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.

(2) Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, “An Economical Project.” It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.

(3) In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.

(4) The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on “the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich” (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

(5) President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).

(1) Abraham Lincoln served as the 16th President of the United States, yet he never went to college. In fact, Lincoln had nearly no formal education whatsoever, attending schools for less than a year throughout his childhood. Yet this should not be construed to mean that Lincoln was ignorant or unlearned; on the contrary, he was one of the most well-read leaders of the time. The fact is that Abraham Lincoln educated himself by studying books of religion, philosophy, and literature, and he continued his voracious reading throughout his life.

(2) A lack of public school education did not prevent Lincoln from becoming a great leader. He led the United States through four years of civil war, which threatened to divide the nation into two separate countries. He was a powerful opponent of slavery, and it was largely through his leadership that slavery was abolished in this country.

(3) Lincoln’s determination to educate himself through diligent reading also led to his reputation as a great orator—and even today his speeches are quoted and studied worldwide. He serves as an example of a great leader—and a great reader. His love of books and good literature enabled Abe Lincoln to rise to world renown.

Use the first passage to answer questions 1 through 6 and the second passage to answer questions 7 through 11.

1. As it is used in paragraph 3, the word obligatory most nearly means:
A) approved.
B) sparse.
C) aberrant.
D) requisite.
2. Who first established the idea of DST?
A) President Richard Nixon
B) Benjamin Franklin
C) Sir Robert Pearce
D) President Lyndon Johnson
3. Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?
А) Sir Robert Pearce
B) farmers
C) television and radio broadcasting companies
D) the U.S. Congress
4. Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?
A) It was created by President Richard Nixon.
B) It set standards for DST throughout the world.
C) It constructed the Uniform Time Act.
D) It oversees all time laws in the United States.
5. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
А) The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time
B) Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act
C) The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time
D) Daylight Saving Time in the United States
6.The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for:
А) preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent.
B) instituting five time zones in the United States.
C) extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation.
D) conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws.
7. What is the main idea of this passage?
А) Abe Lincoln was the 16th President of the United States.
B) Abe Lincoln demonstrated the value of reading.
C) Abe Lincoln was a Republican.
D) Abe Lincoln freed the slaves.
8. Lincoln accomplished all of the following EXCEPT:
А) preventing the United States from being divided.
B) ending slavery.
C) becoming a great leader.
D) establishing the Lincoln Memorial.
9. A voracious reader is:
А) likely to become President.
B) a person who makes reading a regular habit.
C) someone who never went to school
D) probably poor.
10. The underlined word construed, as used in paragraph 1, most nearly means:
А) tormented.
B) taken apart.
C) unscrewed.
D) interpreted.
11. According to the passage, what lesson can be learned from the life of Abraham Lincoln?
А) Education is not important.
B) All books are worth reading.
C) Good reading habits can help a person do great things.
D) Politicians are always good role models.

Arithmetic Reasoning

Please read all of these instructions carefully.

  • In this section of the test, you will be presented with 16 questions that will test your ability to solve questions the emphasize arithmetic reasoning. You are not permitted to use a calculator on this section of the test, although you may use as much scratch paper as necessary.

  • For this section of the test, you will have 39 minutes to answer the questions. In light of that, you should not spend too much time on a question. If you are not certain of the answer, answer it the best you can, and go on to the next question.

  • Once you start this section of the test, you will not be able to pause it. In addition, you must complete every section of this practice test (i.e., Word Knowledge, Arithmetic Reasoning, Paragraph Comprehension, and Mathematics Knowledge) to see your predicted AFQT score.

Click the start button to begin.

1. In order to get a loan to purchase a house, Jimmy has to come up with a down payment that is 1/10th of the home's price. If the house he wants to buy is being sold for $375,000, how much will his down payment be?
A) $30,500
B) $37,500
C) $50,000
D) $35,500
2. During the holidays, a sterling silver necklace that regularly sells for $110 is currently on sale for 35% off. What is the sale price of the necklace?
A) $71.50
B) $79.50
C) $61.50
D) $75.50
3. If a 4 foot post casts a 16 foot shadow and, at the same time, a nearby tree casts a 32 foot shadow, then how tall is the tree?
А) 10 feet
B) 8 feet
C) 12 feet
D) 9 feet
4. Anderson earns a monthly salary of $250 as well as a commission of $50 for every sale he makes. How many sales must he make to earn $1,500 in one month?
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
5. A nurse bought a Tesla and now has a car payment of $500 per month: $450 of her payment goes to paying off the principal, and the rest goes to paying the interest on her loan. What percent of her total monthly payment is her interest payment?
А) 10%
B) 15%
C) 8%
D) 12%
6. In a class on linear algebra, 1/8 of the class had an A average, 1/2 had a B average, and the rest of the class had a C average. If there were 40 students in that class, how many of them had a C average?
А) 12
B) 13
C) 14
D) 15
7. The following colors of Skittles are placed in a bowl: 6 purple, 6 orange, 4 green, 4 red, and 5 yellow. If you close your eyes and randomly select one from the bowl, what is the probability that you select a green one?
А) 19%
B) 18%
C) 17%
D) 16%
8. How many feet of a wire fence is necessary to enclose a garden that is square and has an area of 144 square feet?
А) 48 feet
B) 64 feet
C) 81 feet
D) 36 feet
9. The price of flounder in Florida is $12.75 per pound. This is 150% of the cost of flounder per pound in Alaska. How much does flounder cost per pound in Alaska?
А) $6.50
B) $7.50
C) $8.50
D) $9.50
10. A premium printing press can print 6,000 copies in 20 minutes. A second press can print 15,000 copies in 60 minutes. How many more copies per minute will the faster press print than the slower press?
А) 40
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100
11. After their mother passed away, Hila and Ethan inherited $1,000,000. If Ethan received $125,000 and Hila received the rest of the money, what fraction of their mother's estate did Hila receive?
А) 7/8
B) 5/8
C) 8/9
D) 5/7
12. Cindy's scores on her first four organic chemistry tests were 65, 75, 80, and 72. In order to get a C+ in the class, she needs to have an average of at least 77%. What score must she make on her fifth test to get a C+ in the class?
А) 94
B) 93
C) 92
D) 91
13. If it costs $10.50 per square foot to tile a floor, how much would it cost to tile a rectangular section of the floor that is 9 feet by 20 feet?
А) $1,980
B) $1,890
C) $1,720
D) $1,670
14. In one year, the population of a city increased by 20%. The next year, however, it decreased by 10%. What was the overall percentage increase in the population over the two years?
А) 8%
B) 9%
C) 10%
D) 11%
15. A gas truck can fill a gas tank at the rate of 500 cubic inches per minute. If a gas tank is 20 inches long, 20 inches wide, and 15 inches tall, how long will it take the gas truck to fill the gas tank?
А) 11 minutes
B) 14 minutes
C) 13 minutes
D) 12 minutes
16. A train goes three times as fast downhill as it can go uphill, and 2/3 as fast uphill as it can go on level ground. If it goes 100 miles per hour downhill, how long will it take to travel 60 miles on level ground?
А) 1 hour 12 minutes
B) 1 hour 15 minutes
C) 1 hour 30 minutes
D) 1 hour 32 minutes